UPMCAT 2011

Uttar Pradesh Management Common Aptitude Test (UPMCAT) is an examination conducted each year for admission to various management courses in the colleges situated in uttar Pradesh. UPCAT is conducted each year by Uttar Pradesh Technical University (UPTU) situated in lucknow. UPMCAT provides admission to two year full time MBA / MMS / MIBM / MMEM / MTM / MCM / MFC management courses.
Eligibility –
Nationality: Admissions are open to Indian Nationals only. Candidates who have passed the qualifying examination from an institution / university located in the state of U.P. are eligible for admission at all the institutions (irrespective of their domicile).
Candidates who have passed the qualifying examination from institutions located outside the State of Uttar Pradesh are eligible for admission to all the courses at all the institutions and universities inside U.P. except Motilal Nehru Regional Engineering College – MNREC Allahabad, now known called as National Institute of Technology (NIT) Allahabad.
Reservation of seats: 21% seats are reserved for schedule caste (SC), 2% seats are reserved for schedule tribe and 27% seats are reserved for other backward category candidates respectively on all India basis.
Exam Pattern –
The UPMCAT Test consists of multiple choice objective type questions to test the Verbal Ability, Quantitative Aptitude, Logical & Abstract Reasoning and Knowledge of Current Affairs. The test is divided into four sections.
Section A Test of proficiency in English Language. The questions cover grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion, synonyms, antonyms, relationship between words and phrases and comprehension of passages.
Section B Test of Numerical Aptitude based on general mathematics, numerical calculation, arithmetic, simple algebra and geometry. This also tests the ability to interpret common graphs charts and tables.
Section C Speed And Accuracy Of Thinking and decisions making. The test is based on assessment of figures, diagrams, unfamiliar relationships and verbal reasoning.
Section D Knowledge of current affairs related to trade, industry, economy, sports and culture.
Tentative dates:
1. April 2011 – availability of application forms
2. May 2011 – date of entrance examination

Management Entrance Exams In india

CAT – Common Admission Test
MAT – Management Aptitude Test
RMAT – Rajasthan Management Aptitude Test
SNAP – Symbiosis National Aptitude Test
CWAT – Combine Written Admission Test
XAT – Xavier Admission Test
RMCAAT – Rajasthan Masters of Computer Application Admission Test
PLMECWA PGCET – Pondicherry Linguistic Minority Engg. Colleges Welfare Asso.
TANCET – Tamil Nadu Common Entrance Test
UKSEE – Uttarakhand State Entrance Exam

DCMS -Divine College of Management Studies

Teaching and Non Teaching Posts in Bundelkhand Institute of Engineering & Technology, Jhansi

Bundelkhand Institute of Engineering & Technology (BIET), Jhansi
(Autonomous UP Govt. Institute)
Separate Application are invited for the following posts on prescribed application form.
1. Professor : 05 posts
2. Associate Professor : 03 posts
3. Assistant Professor : 09 posts
4. Computer Operator : 03 posts
5. Steno : 03 posts
6. Junior Assistant : 03 posts
7. Library Assistant : 03 posts
8. Attendant : 09 posts
9. Training & Placement Officer : 01 post
10. Dy. Librarian : 01 post
11. Accountant : 01 post
12. Lab Assistant : 01 post
13. Librarian : 01 post
How to Apply : Application in prescribed format should reach to the Director, Bundelkhand Institute of Engineering & Technology, Jhansi latest by 04/04/2011.

Teaching and Non Teaching Posts in University College of Medical Sciences

University College of Medical Sciences (UCMS)
(University of Delhi)
Dilshad Garden, Delhi – 110095, INDIA
Applications are invited on the prescribed form for the following Teaching and Non-Teaching posts so as to reach the Principal, University College of Medical Science, Dilshad Garden, Delhi-110095 latest by 21/03/2011:
* Teaching Posts : 41 posts (Professor-11, Reader- 15, Lecturer-15) in various departments.
* Lady Medical Officer : 01 post
* Technical Officer : 03 posts
* Librarian : 01 post
* Information Scientist : 01 post
* Junior Assistant : 06 posts
* Driver : 03 posts
* Electrician : 01 post
* Statistical Assistant : 01 post
* Senior Technical Assistant : 11 posts
* Technical Assistant : 02 posts
* Laboratory Assistant : 06 posts
* Professional Assistant : 01 post
* Semi Professional Assistant : 02 posts
* Jr. Library and Information Assistant : 01 post
* Auxiliary Nurse Midwife : 02 posts
* Medical Social Worker : 03 posts
* Health Inspector : 05 posts
* Health Educator : 01 post
* Junior Dietician : 01 post
* Projectionist : 03 posts
* Office Attendant : 04 posts
* Security Guard : 05 posts
* Mali : 01 post
* Laboratory Attendant : 24 posts
* Library Attendant : 07 posts

Oxford Brookes University Scholarships in Publishing Studies

Oxford Brookes University
Oxford International Centre for Publishing Studies Scholarship (International)
The Oxford International Centre for Publishing Studies is offering a fee-waiver bursary of £1,500 to a full-time or part-time International student on the MA in Publishing, International Publishing, Publishing and Language, Digital Publishing or the European Master in Publishing for the academic year commencing September 2010.
The Scholarship will be awarded on the basis of a proven interest in a publishing career, and a considered explanation of what the Master’s course will contribute to the student’s learning and career development.
Applicants must already have accepted by the time of application for the scholarship a conditional or unconditional offer of a place at Oxford Brookes to start a course in September 2010. Applicants for the Scholarship must submit by email a cv and a 500-word rationale for their application for the Scholarship. Applicants are also asked to detail any further funding sources they are applying for, and to indicate how they intend to pay for the remainder of their fees and maintenance costs.
The application must be made by email to
(r.dobrzanski@brookes.ac.uk)
Rosalyn Dobrzanski,
Senior Tutor in Publishing,
by 30 June 2010.
Applicants will be informed by email of the Scholarship Panel’s decision by the 15 July 2010.
Students may apply for this Scholarship alongside other sources of funding (including the John Henry Brookes International Scholarship if applicable), but these must be detailed on the application. The Scholarship will not include a maintenance grant. Applicants who are successful in receiving awards from other sources of funding which cover their tuition fees will not be eligible for the Scholarship, and must inform the Senior Tutor. Eligibility will not be affected by funding covering maintenance costs. The Scholarship cannot be transferred to maintenance costs.

Robert S. McNamara Fellowships Program (RSM Fellowships) 2010

RSM Fellowships Program
The Robert S. McNamara Fellowships Program (RSM Fellowships)
The Scholarship Program and the Fellowships Program are vehicles for knowledge sharing and capacity building in the developing world. The Programs provide opportunities for graduate and postgraduate studies leading to master’s and doctoral degrees in development-related fields for mid-career professionals from eligible developing countries. WBI supplements its training programs through the management of the following programs:
The Robert S. McNamara Fellowships Program provides support to young researchers working in academic and research institutions from eligible countries preparing a doctoral thesis. Research grants cover residence costs for a 5 to 10 month period in a renowned university or research center. Fellows are expected to advance their research work mainly by using the facilities and resources provided by the host institution and by interacting with peers.
Who Can Apply?
Only lecturers and researchers from eligible countries working on their doctoral thesis can apply for the fellowship. Candidates should be under 45 years, and have completed any course work or exams required for their doctoral program.
What Does the Program Support?
The purpose of the grant is to help fellows advance their doctoral research work through a residency period of five to ten months in a host institution in a country other than their home country or country of residence. During the research period at the host institution, the fellows are expected to have access to essential resources such as reference books and research publications, databases, and software; attend seminars and eventually courses; and to benefit by interacting with peers.
Host Institution
Candidates should be accepted or invited by a host institution which would designate an academic advisor to assist the fellow during his research period. Host institutions should also commit to provide the fellow with basic amenities such as office space and access to a computer, and to facilitate his/her research activities.
Fields of Research
Candidate’s field of research should be related to development at the master’s level, in fields such as economics, health, education, agriculture, environment, natural resource management, or other development‑related subject.
Fellowships Award
Eligible candidates are evaluated by external reviewers based on three criteria: academic performance, teaching and research experience, and relevance of the proposed research program. The top candidates are submitted to the Selection Committee, which includes World Bank senior experts and Donors representatives, for final selection. In addition to the merit criteria, the Selection Committee takes into account other factors such as availability of budget, geographical diversity and gender balance.
Grants
Candidates are requested to submit a budget for their fellowship covering the costs related to their research program: travel; insurance and living expenses; fees for courses and participation to seminars; and a books and software allowance. The grant amount to be awarded to each fellow will be decided by the Selection Committee. The maximum amount of the grant is US$ 25,000.
Fellow’s Commitment
Fellows are required to issue two reports, a mid-term report during the fellowship period and a final report containing the results of the research. The results of the McNamara fellows research work may be considered for publication by the World Bank. Fellows are expected to return to their home countries and resume their academic or research position upon completion of the fellowship. They are also expected to mention the McNamara fellowship award in any publication related to their doctoral research work, including their thesis, and to provide the Program with a copy of their thesis upon graduation.
They are currently updating this application for the 2010 program.

Academic Notifications,

University of Sussex
School of Media, Film and Music
Media Film and Music Research Scholarships
The School of Media, Film and Music is delighted to offer up to four scholarships to UK/HEU and non EU students who have been accepted for DPhil study in any of the following areas, starting in October 2011:
Media and Cultural Studies
Film and TV Studies
Film, Digital and Media Production
Music, Music Theatre and Musical Composition
The scholarships will be worth the equivalent amount of the Home/EU fee in the relevant year for full-time students (at present £3,466), or pro-rata for part-time students, and will be awarded for three years for full-time students, or for an equivalent or relevant period of time for part-time and current students. Applications will be judged on academic merit and personal need.
Eligibility
Applicants must:
have been offered a place on a research degree programme in the School of Media, Film and Music in one of the areas listed above submit their research proposal and a statement of personal circumstances with their application commence the degree in October 2011 (awards cannot be deferred to subsequent years)
Application procedure
Applications should be made on the School of Media, Film and Music Research Degree Scholarship application form [PDF]
Or
School of Media, Film and Music Research Degree Scholarship application form [DOC]
Timetable
Deadline for all applications to be received – By 14 March 2011
Week beginning 11 April 2011: Applicants notified of the outcome of their application by email
Further information
For further information on the scholarships please contact
Ms Sarah Maddox
Tel: +44 1273 873525

Interview Question Asked Interview Question for Computer Sci

Which is the first super computer built in India?
Explain boundary fill, flood fill and scan fill
What is the language used for Artificial Intelligence?
Define Avalanche diode multiplication
How many flip flops are required for a modulo 19 counter?
A ring counter’s initial state is 01000. After how many clock cycles will it return to its initial state?

UNIX

Explain Fork as applied to UNIX.In UNIX what does profile contain?
In UNIX what is echo used for? What is the requirement of MIMD?
In UNIX what is the difference between select and poll?

System Programming

How is relocatable code generated in an assembler?
Differentiate between little Endian and Big Endian data format?
How much information can be stored in 1-byte of an IBM pc compatible?
Explain the superscalar architect of Pentium.What is runtime locatable code?
What is the difference between risc and cisc? Whose product is the Power PC?
What are the functions done during the first pass of an assembler?

Compiler Construction

How is Code optimization done using DAG?
How do parsers work?

Theory of Computation

What is Moore machine?What is a turing machine?What is a finite automata?

Software Engineering

Which are the different phases in a software life cycle?
How much time is usually spent in each phase and why?
Why are analysis and testing phases very important?
What is testing? Which are the different types of testing?
What is unit testing, integration testing etc? Describe VRTX

Computer Networks

Why are networks layered? What is the advantage of that?
What is gateway used for?
What are network topologies? Which are the different types?
Give an example of Bus type network?
What does CONNECT mean?
Explain about Ethernet? Which is the protocol used in Ethernet?
Explain the Shannon Hartley theorem.Give the features of CDMA technology
How many layers are there in OSI?
Explain HTTP, SMTP,TCP,UDP,WAP.IP and POP3
Why are partitions used? What are the different types of Partitions?
What bandwidth is suggested for ATM?What is meant by Subnet?
What is RSA? What is DHCP used for?
What is waterfall model, prototype model etc?
What is microwave propagation along the surface of the earth called?
How does WINMAIN look like? What is the disadvantage of pcm?

Database Management Systems

What is atomicity? What is indexing in databases?
What is the method used for disk searching?
Explain Codd’s rule related to database
What is SQL? Explain about DNS
Briefly explain Vision critical systems? Which is the database using VCS?
Explain about RTOS and RDMS

Sample Question Paper for MCSE

1. In the Binary numbering system, a (1) represents a jumper being shorted and a (0) represents a jumper being open. On a three-bit jussmper block on a SCSI drive, how would an ID of logical 3 be set?

a) 100

b) 010

c) 011

d) 101

2. What is the highest binary number that can be referred to on a three position jumper block?

a) 4

b) 6

c) F

d) 7

SECTION 2: DISK OPERATING SYSTEM

1. A customer complains his system is telling him his 263 MB hard disk drive is out of space. His standard directory search says the TOTAL size of files listed adds up to less that 263 MB. What is the cause?

a) The system is not calculating the total size of the files because the battery is bad

b) Bad controller

c) Files can have hidden attributes that don’t allow them to list in a standard search

d) Defective RAM

2. Which of the following is loaded for CD-ROM support?

a) VLM.EXE

b) CDDEX.EXE

c) DOSKEY.EXE

d) MSCDEX.EXE

3. The buffers statement is found in what file?

a) Config.sys

b) Autoexec.ncf

c) Autoexec.bat

d) Neb.cfg

4. Adding the SHARE.EXE in autoexec.bat file:

a) Allows directories to be shared in a network enviroment

b) Prevents directories from being shared in a network environment

c) Allows a file to be shared by multiple users or programs

d) Prevents files from being shared by multiple users or programs

5. What terminate and stay resident (TSR) program can be loaded in the autoexec.bat file?

a) More.exe

b) Scandisk

c) Fdisk.com

d) Doskey.com

6. Which DOS driver is used to emulate expanded memory?

a) Mem386.sys

b) EMM386.exe

c) Hiset.sys

d) Scandrive.sys

7. Which command is executed before the others when a computer is first turned on?

a) Device=c:\emm386.exe

b) Device=c:\dos\himem.sys

c) Prompt=$p$g

d) Path c:\dos

8. Which DOS 6 driver will manage expanded memory?

a) HIMEM.SYS

b) EXP.SYS

c) EMM386.EXE

d) EMM386.COM

9. To conserve battery power on your laptop computer, what MS-DOS v6.x command should you use?

a) Powermon.exe

b) Power.exe

c) Idel.com

d) Pw.sys

10. Which command will prevent subsequent changes to the file CBT.EXE?

a) RENAME + r CBT.EXE

b) ATTRIB + r CBT.EXE

c) COPY +r CBT.EXE

d) MODE +r CBT.EXE

11. When executed from a bootable hard drive, which command will make a formatted floppy disk bootable?

a) COPY C:\DOS\COMMAND.COM A:\

b) ATTRIB C:\*.SYS A:\

c) XCOPY C:\DOS\*.* A:\

d) SYS C: A:

12. Which of the following represents a correct sequence for the boot process ona DOS machine?

a) AUTOEXEC.BAT, CONFIG.SYS

b) CONFIG.SYS, AUTOEXEC.BAT

c) AUTOEXEC.BAT, COMMAND.COM

d) CONFIG.BAT, AUTOEXEC.BAT

13. Which file executes commands in DOS?

a) MS-DOS.SYS

b) CONFIG.SYS

c) COMMAND.COM

d) SYSTEM.INI

14. In DOS, which of the following keys will bypass the CONFIG.SYS and AUTOEXEC.BAT files?

a) F8

b) F5

c) F4

d) F1

15. What command can you add to the AUTOEXEC.BAT file so that your computer temporarily stops in the execution of the file before continuing?

a) Pause

b) Halt

c) Wait x.xx seconds

d) Wait until Files=”x”

16. After upgrading your computer to a new DOS version, an older application displays the error message “Incorrect DOS version”. What should you do to run this application?

a) Use the DOS+ command

b) Use the SETVER command

c) Restore the old DOS version

d) Contact the application’s vendor support line

17. Lost chains can be easily identified and returned to the directory by:

a) Running CHKDSK

b) Running CHKDSK /F

c) Typing DIR /AH

d) Running SCANDISK

e) Copying them using COPY /B

18. Which driver controls the mouse in the CONFIG.SYS file?

a) MSMOUSE.EXE

b) MOUSE.SYS

c) DEVDRIVE.SYS

d) DRIVER.COM

19. The term TSR is an abbreviation for:

a) Terminal Stay Ready

b) Testing System Read

c) Terminal Still Ready

d) Terminate Stay Resident

20. Which is LEAST likely to interfere with upgrading to a newer DOS version?

a) ROM BIOS

b) Video controller

c) Compressed drives

d) Existing backup files

21. In DOS version 6.x SMARTDRV.EXE can cache _____________. (choose all that apply)

a) Floppies

b) Video devices

c) CD-ROMS

d) Hard drives

e) Tape systems

SECTION 3 : SAFETY

1.Which is the easiest component to enviromentally recycle?

a) Motherboards

b) CMOS batteries

c) Toner cartridges

d) Cathode ray tubes

2. Which step should you perform first before discharging a CRT?

a) Remove the CRT from its housing

b) Disconnect the CRT from the computer

c) Remove the video assembly

d) Turn power off before removing power source

3. ESD damage can be caused by:

a) Placing an IC in a non-conductive plastic bag

b) Placing an IC on a grounded mat

c) Repeated sags in current supplied from outlets

d) Touching metal on the chasis

4. ESD is most likely to cause failures on which of the following components (choose two)

a) CD-ROM drive

b) Power supply

c) I/O controller

d) RAM module

e) Hard drive

5. Which REQUIRES an anti-static bag for transport?

a) Monitor

b) Floppy disks

c) Power supply

d) I/O controller

e) Speaker sub-system

6. Which items provide the most protection against ESD during troubleshooting? (choose two)

a) Grounding wire

b) Anti-static mat

c) Anti-static brush

d) ESD grounding wrist strap

7. To avoid ESD when working on a PC: (choose two)

a) Assure that you and the PC are at the same electrical charge level

b) Connect a grounding wire from the PC to a non-conductor

c) Connect your grounding wrist strap to the PC’s logic board

d) Use anti-static spray liberally

8. ESD potential decreases with the use of:

a) De-ionizing fans

b) A wrist strap

c) Rubber gloves with matching cap

d) A static meter

9. A wrist grounding strap contains which of the following:

a) Surge protector

b) Capacitor

c) Voltmeter

d) Resistor

10. Which of the following items would require you to comply with EPA disposal guidelines?

a) Keyboard

b) System board

c) Power supply

d) Battery

11. When is the risk for static discharge the greatest?

a) Day time

b) High humidity

c) Low humidity

d) Night time

12. ESD would cause the most damage to which component?

a) Power supply

b) Expansion board

c) Monitor

d) Keyboard

13. What is the best ground for a conductive work bench?

a) AC outlet

b) Ground to bend

c) To another device

d) Chassis ground

14. The major difference between ESD and EMI is that:

a) EMI will destroy the component

b) EMI is not recoverable

c) ESD has no effect on a component

d) EMI is recoverable

SECTION 4 : MICROCOMPUTER COMPONENTS

1. One of the major components of a PC is the Central Procesing Unit (CPU) which can be best described as:

a) The device that sends the monitor signals telling it what to display

b) The area that regulates all of the system power usage

c) The area where all the of the Basic input/output routines are stored

d) The area where all of the processing takes place

2. IBM’s Micro Channel Architecture (MCA) specifies which type of the following bit access widths?

a) 8 bit & 16 bit

b) 16 bit & 24 bit

c) 16 bit & 32 bit

d) 32 bit & 64 bit

3. Which type of system board is the MOST likely candidate for processor upgrading if you want maximum performance and future compatibility?

a) ML

b) PCI

c) ISA

d) EISA

4. A PC with a 486DX2 processor runs internally at 50Mhz. What speed would its external logic be running?

a) 10Mhz

b) 25Mhz

c) 50Mhz

d) 100 Mhz

5. A hard disk is divided into tracks which are further subdivided into:

a) clusters

b) sectors

c) vectors

d) heads

6. TWO primary performance restraints for mass storage devices are:

a) Storage ability

b) Driver aceleration

c) Access speed

d) Route mobility

e) Rate of transfer

f) Size of cache

7. Which provides the fastest access to large video files?

a) 4x CD

b) IDE hard drives

c) SCSI hard drives

d) EIDE hard drives

8. When connecting two external SCSI hard disks to a computer, where do you connect the second hard drive?

a) Any open SCSI port on the computer

b) A Serial port on the first host adapter

c) An open parallel port on the computer

d) An open SCSI port on the first hard drive

9. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Two SCSI devices connected to a comptuer can have the same ID is they are both hard drives.

b) Each SCSI device must have its own ID

c) All SCSI devices must have the same ID

d) SCSI ID’s are irrelevant

10. When installing a SCSI CD-ROM drive, you must set the CD-ROM SCSI adapter to:

a) B0007

b) An unused SCSI address

c) The same address as the SCSI device before the CD-ROM

d) SCSI ID=1

11. Which provides the fastest data access time?

a) RAM

b) ROM

c) CD-ROM

d) Hard disk

e) Floppy disk

12. When SHADOWING is enabled in a computers BIOS:

a) Values are stored twice in the memory for redundancy checking

b) The conventional memory is re-mapped to the top of the extended memory

c) Data stored in RAM chips on adapter cards are shadowed into extended memory

d) Instructions stored in various ROM chips are copied into extended memory

13. What does the CPU do? (choose all that apply)

a) Control power voltages

b) Execute program instructions

c) Dictate video resolution

d) Perform math functions

e) Control input/output operations

14. Which controller would support an external CD-ROM drive?

a) ESDI

b) ARLL

c) MFM

d) SCSI

15. Which device will provide the fastest data access?

a) ROM

b) RAM

c) Floppy

d) CD-ROM

16. What specification covers PC hard cards?

a) SCSI

b) ISA

c) PCMCIA

d) MFM

17. A Type 1 PCMCIA card is:

a) The same physical size as other PCMCIA cards but configured differently

b) The thinnest PCMCIA card, measuring 3.5mm in thickness

c) The thickest PCMCIA card, measuring 10.5mm in thickness

d) An old standard that is not compatible with the newest laptops

18. In ROM BIOS, the acronym BIOS stands for:

a) Basic Intuitive Output Set

b) Basic Input Organizational System

c) Basic Input Output System

d) Basic Industrial Operating Symbols

19. Which would you have to upgrade to install an EIDE drive?

a) RAM BIOS

b) A 286 CPU

c) Serial board

d) ISA motherboard

e) Controller board

20. The standard VGA display has ____ pixels in its na‹ve graphics mode?

a) 640×320

b) 640×480

c) 680×440

d) 1024×786

SECTION 5 : MISCELLANEOUS HARDWARE

1. Which of the following devices send and receive information from other devices? (choose all that apply)

a) Mouse port

b) Serial port

c) Video port

d) Parallel port

2. Which peripheral provides the FASTEST throughput to laser printers?

a) RS-232

b) SCSI

c) Parallel

d) Serial

3. A customer has one printer on LPT1 and wants to add another printer. To which port should it be connected?

a) Game port

b) COM1

c) LPT2

d) COM2

4. A 25-pin female connector on the back of your computer will typically be:

a) Serial port 1

b) A parallel port

c) Docking

d) COM2 port

5. Which hardware component controls serial port communications?

a) ROM BIOS

b) CPU

c) DMA823

d) UART 16550

6. When connecting a ribbon cable to a connector, how do you know which direction to plug it in?

a) The red line in the cable goes to the highest pin number

b) The colored line in the cable goes to pin #1

c) It does not matter

d) The blue or red line in the cable goes away from the power connector

7. COM1 is typically represented by which of the following?

a) 15 pin port

b) 9 pin male port

c) 9 pin female port

d) 25 pin male port

8. 14.4 modem should transmit _____ bits per second

a) 14,400-15,000

b) 140-150

c) 1400-1500

d) 140,000-150,000

9. A modem could be attached to which port?

a) Parallel port

b) ASYNC port

c) Keyboard connector

d) Video port

10. A customer has one printer on LPT1 and wants to add another printer. To which port could it be connected?

a) Game port

b) COM1

c) LPT2

d) COM2

SECTION 6 : PREVENTATIVE MAINTAINANCE

1. Which of the following is a type of preventative maintainance used on a hard drive?

a) Disk check diagnostics

b) Head alignment diagnostics

c) Initializing

d) HIGHMEM.SYS

2. What product is used to clean smudged keys on a keyboard?

a) TMC solvent

b) Silicone spray

c) Denatured alcohol

d) All-purpose cleaner

3. Which should you use for cleaning Mylar-protected LCD screens?

a) Ammonia window cleaner

b) Non-abrasive cleanser

c) Anti-static wipes

d) Alcohol-impregnated wipes

4. It is most important to keep hard drives and diskettes away from? (choose two)

a) Telephones

b) Battery-operated devices

c) Magnetic devices

d) Temperature extremes

5. _________ help prevent power surges.

a) Surge suppressor

b) Spike protector

c) UPS system

d) High-grade multi-meter

6. What device prevents power interruptions, resulting in corrupted data?

a) Battery back-up unit

b) Surge protector

c) Multiple SIMMs strips

d) Data guard system

e) Turn off the AC power

7. How can you totally protect a PC from damage during an electrical storm?

a) Disconnect the AC power cable

b) Disconnect all external cables and power cords

c) Use a surge protector

d) Turn off the AC power

8. What would you ask to determine if the display is working?

a) Is there a video cursor or action on the screen?

b) Did the computer beep or chime?

c) Is there high voltage static on the screen

d) Is the video display brightness and contrast turned up?

e) All of the above

9. Which would you do first when troubleshooting a faulty monitor?

Check its connections to the computer and power source

b) Use a meter to check the CRT and internal circuitry for continuity

c) Power down the monitor, then turn it on again to see if that corrects the problem

d) Power down the computer, then turn it on again to see if that corrects the problem

10. Which monitor would provide the highest level of performance?

a) VGA

b) XGA

c) CGA

d) SVGA

11. What configuration should a Volt-Ohm meter be set to when testing a fuse?

a) DC volts

b) AC volts

c) Amperage

d) Ohms

12. When you are going to measure an unknown voltage you should always start with the meter on the _______ voltage setting to prevent damage to the meter.

a) Highest

b) Lowest

c) 100ma

d) 0 ohms

13. The digital multimeter is set for DC, Ohm and 20k. You will read ____ while measuring a good 2 amp fuse.

a) 0.00

b) 0.02

c) 0.20

d) 2.00

14. What resistence in ohms should be displayed when testing a speaker in a computer?

a) 0 Ohms

b) -16 Ohms

c) -200 Ohms

d) Unlimited Ohms

15. You suspect a virus has entered your computer. What will not be affected by the virus?

a) CMOS

b) Boot sector

c) Floppy disks

d) Program files

16. When not in use, it is very important to keep 5 1/4 diskettes in ______.

a) Their protective sleeves

b) In a plastic bag

c) On a shelf in an upright position

d) In the floppy drive

17. The monitor power LED is ‘on’ but the monitor screen is completely dark. The least likely cause of the problem is:

a) Defect in the computers video circuitry

b) Disconnected video cable

c) Defective monitor

d) System RAM problem

SECTION 7 : HARDWARE INSTALLATION AND CONFIGURATION

1. To install a second IDE drive into a computer, you must:

a) Set the master-slave jumper to slave on the second drive

b) Use the IDE configuration software to set the new drive as slave

c) Verify that you define the new drive as D: in the CMOS setup

d) Verity that you attach the drive to the connector at the end of the ribbon cable

2. An IRQ allow interface cards to:

a) Interrupt the CPU to request service

b) Pass data to the CPU to be processed

c) Pass data from one card to another

d) Pass data to the computers memory

3. How may standard levels of interrupts are provided on the 8-bit ISA bus (XT-class computer)?

a) 4

b) 8

c) 12

d) 16

4. Serial ports are assigned interrupts to avoid conflict between the ports. Which port(s) should be assigned to IRQ4?

a) COM1

b) COM2

c) COM3

d) COM4

5. IRQ6 is typically reserved for:

a) The floppy

b) The keyboard controller

c) LPT2

d) The modem

6. On the 16-bit ISA bus, IRQ2 is elevated to which higher level interrupt?

a) 9

b) 11

c) 13

d) 15

7. Which specifies your hard disk configuration?

a) CMOS

b) WIN.INI

c) ROM BIOS

d) CONFIG.SYS

e) SYSTEM.INI

f) AUTOEXEC.BAT

8. A system has two IDE hard drives that are each divided into primary and extended partitions which drive letter is assigned to the primary partition of the second drive?

a) C

b) D

c) E

d) F

9. After doing a low-level format, what would be the next step in configuring the hard drive in a system?

a) Format DOS partition

b) Install operating system

c) Configure DMA channel and back-up interrupt

d) Partition had disk

10. What is a common complication when adding a 1.6G IDE hard drive to an older system such as a 16Mhz 80386 system?

a) The drive is too big for the available drive bays

b) The old style IDE connector won’t plug in properly

c) The power supply may be sufficient

d) System BIOS needs to be upgraded

11. After displaying the directory of a floppy disk, a different floppy is inserted into the drive.The contents of the original floppy continues to display regardless of the director requests on the other floppies placed in the drive.You remove the drive in question and install it into your test system, and it does not exhibit the problem.You should next replace the:

a) System’s floppy drive device driver

b) Original IDE controller

c) Floppy drive ribbon cable

d) System’s power supply

12. What component would most likely cause a “parity error”?

a) Hard disk

b) Controller

c) Bad RAM

d) Software

SECTION 8 : DIAGNOSTICS AND REPAIR

1. Which is NOT typically a Field Replaceable Unit?

a) System ROM

b) Power supply

c) System chassis

d) Video controller

2. What does the acronym RTS represent?

a) Required to save

b) Ready to start

c) Request to send

d) Right to separate

3. What command is used to reset a MODEM when using the “AT Command Set”?

a) ATR

b) ATZ

c) DTR

d) DCE

4. In the DOS memory model, the HIGH Memory Area (HMA) is the _______ memory.

a) Last 64k of conventional

b) Last 64k of extended

c) First 64k above conventional

d) First 64k of extended

5. To optimize conventional memory, which command do you use to load DOS into the high memory area (HMA)?

a) DOS=HIGH

b) DOS=UMB

c) LOADHIGH

d) DEVICEHIGH

6. Match the device driver HIMEM.SYS to its operation.

a) Supports (ANSI) terminal emulation

b) Manages the use of extended memory

c) Uses expanded memory on a 80386 processor

d) Supports code page switching

7. During boot-up, the memory test:

a) Is a superfluous step that should be ignored

b) Checks and verifies that contiguous memory is installed

c) Is an operational error

d) Displays what memory is installed, but nothing else

8. During the boot process, a system first counts memory from where?

a) Expansion memory board

b) Video adapter

c) System board

d) Cache

9. The following process determines the amount of memory present, the date/time, and which communications ports and display adapters are installed in a microcomputer?

a) Start-up utility test

b) Power on self test

c) Power up boot process

d) Power on start up process

10. A customer attached an external drive to his notebook computer but the computer is not recognizing it.

What should be considered?

a) The cables are attached firmly

b) The external drive has been pre-loaded with the appropriate software

c) The external drive was attached before the computer was on

d) The external drive is turned on

11. Suppose that you have a “solid” failure, and the maintenance package identifies several possible FRU’s that will resolve the problem. What should you do after turning the power off?

a) Replace the indicated parts, one at a time in the recommended sequence, until the problem is resolved; return unused FRUs to stock

b) Replace all of the indicated FRUs at once and return the machine to the customer if the problem is resolved

c) Follow the same procedure as in “A” EXCEPT always replace the system board first if it is on the list of possible FRUs

d) If multiple FRUs are indicated, then software is the most likely source of the problem.

12. On a leased line installation a known good external modem shows no carrier detect light. Where is the problem most likely to be?

a) In the modem

b) In the phone line

c) In the computer

d) In the DTC equipment

13. Which best describes a fragmented hard drive:

a) The platters are bad

b) Data files are corrupted

c) Clusters of data are damaged

d) Files are not stored in consecutive clusters

14. To find out how much memory is available, you could type _____

a) EMM

b) MEM

c) CHKDSK

d) MEMMAKER

15. When considering replacement of a PC’s power supply, one should be concerned with its ________ (choose two)

a) Voltage and ampere rating

b) Size and shape, on/off switch placement, and wattage

c) Connector wiring color scheme and voltages

d) Phase inductance and switching capability

16. Which components could cause a blank screen?

a) Power supply

b) Video card

c) CPU

d) RAM

17. A keyboard locks up intermittently even when replaced with a new keyboard. What is the LEAST likely cause of the problem?

a) A second bad keyboard

b) The keyboard controller chip

c) The keyboard connector

d) The motherboard

18. The following symbol is used to indicate what?

a) The ground

b) Voltage

c) 12 volt AC line

d) Diode

19. The DC voltage on most circuit boards is:

a) -12 volts

b) 0 volts+5 volts

d) +12 volts

20. What can you use to ensure power is not interrupted, resulting in corrupted data?

a) UPS

b) Proper grounding

c) Surge protector

d) Sag protector

21. When you are testing a fuse, you should set the volt OHM meter to what scale?

a) AC

b) DC

c) AMPS

d) OHMS

22. What questions could be asked to determine if a problem is software or hardware related? (choose all that apply)

a) Does the computer BEEP during the boot phase?

b) Did peripheral devices initialize, i.e. printers?

c) Will hardware components pass diagnostics?

d) Determine how many serial ports are installed in the system.

23. To view any currently running Terminate Stay Resisdent (TSR’s) programs you could type:

a) Memory

b) MEM

c) SYS /M

d) QEMM

24. Which of the following would be a logical first step in trouble shooting a PC?

a) Check the computer CMOS

b) Define the circumstances of the problem

c) Call the vendor

d) Define what applications are being used

25. When you boot a PC and don’t hear any beep, this could suggest which of the following?

a) The monitor is turned off

b) Keyboard not plugged in

c) Normal PC boot

d) Bad or disconnected speaker

26. During the normal PC boot process, which of the following is active first?

a) RAM BIOS

b) CMOS

c) ROM BIOS

d) Hard disk information

27. What is the first thing you could do to check for damage to a printer after receiving it?

a) Run MSD diagnostics

b) Attach it to a PC and print something

c) Check the cables

d) Unbox it and examine it for physical damage

28. A capacitor is measured in which of the following units?

a) Volts Ohms

c) Farads

d) Resistance

29. When measuring AC (Alternating Current) with a multimeter, it is important to maintain the proper polarity.

a) True

b) False

30. After trying to unload a TSR, you get an error message saying that other TSRs were loaded after the one you tried to remove. Which of the following commands could you use to see the current load order?

a) MEM /P

b) MEMMAKER

c) MEM /C

d) SYS:

31. To test for AC ripple on a PC power supply, you would set the volt/ohm meter for:

a) DC voltage scale

b) AC voltage

c) OHM scale

d) Farad scale

32. Which of the following FRUs would be considered both an input/output device?

a) Video board

b) SCSI host adaptre

c) System board

d) CPU

33. A multimeter can be use to perform tests on which of the following? (choose all that apply)

a) To test a capacitor

b) Testing diodes

c) Testing transistors

d) Testing digital logic

34. In order for a modem to accept data, which of the following signals must be present? (choose all that apply)

a) Data detect

b) Carrier detect

c) Transmit message

d) Reveice data

35. When configuring a new network interface card for installation, which of the following would be a valid I/O address?

a) 378

b) 2F8

c) 3F8

d) 360

36. A standard multimeter is ideal for measuring a monitors high voltage output.

a) True

b) False

37. The acronym HDI stands for:

a) Half duplex interface

b) Hard disk interface

c) Head to disk interference

d) Help desk interference

38. Parity error usually indicate bad memory

a) True

b) False

SECTION 9 AND 10 : PRINTING

1. Which part of the laser printer should NOT be exposed to sunlight?

a) Transfer corona assembly

b) PC drum

c) Primary corona wire

d) Toner cartridge

2. In laser technology, what happens during the transfer stage?

a) Residual toner is transferred to the waste receptacle

b) The laser transfers the image from the drum to the paper.

c) The image is transferred from the drum to the paper

d) A negative charge is transferred to the surface of the drum

3. Which component will not cause a paper jam?

a) Fuser roller

b) Scanner unit

c) PC Drum

d) Sheet feeder

4. Which component must be vacuumed or replaced during preventative maintenance on a laser printer?

a) Scanning mirror

b) Toner cartridge

c) Ozone filter

d) photosensitive blade

5. To prevent toner from sticking to a laser printer’s heat rollers, apply which of the following:

a) Alcohol

b) Oil

c) Ammonia

d) Beer or favorite beverage

6. With a dot matrix printer, light then dark print is most commonly caused by:

a) Erratic paper advancement

b) Erratic ribbon advancement

c) Misalligned print head

d) Overheating print head

7. What action will correct patchy, faint, uneven or intermittent print on a dot matrix printer?

a) Replacing the ribbon

b) Replacing the timing belt

c) Adjusting the paper feed tension

d) Adjusting the tractor feed tension

8. During preventative maintenance on a dot matrix printer, do NOT lubricate:

a) Platen assembly

b) Print head pulley

c) Print head pins

d) Paper advance gear bushings

9. Suppose that the power lamp in on, but the printer will not print. What can you do to correct the problem?

a) Make sure the printer is on lin

b) Replace the AC line fuse

c) Turn the printer on and off

d) Replace the ribbon

10. What two products are to clean plastic covers? (choose two)

a) Mild, soapy water

b) Silicone spray

c) Clean, lint free cloth

d) Anti-static spray

11. Which DOS command will configure a serial printing port?

a) Parallel > serial

b) Mode lpt1=COM1

c) Direct lpt1=com1

d) Mode printer()-serial()

12. Your client gets garbage characters when trying to print a document. Which of the questions listed below could you ask? (choose all that apply)

a) Occurrence (how often)?

b) Do you have a sample?

c) What applications are being used?

d) Where is the printer located?

13. Your customer tells you the print quality of their dot matrix printer is light then dark. Which of the following could cause the problem? Choose the BEST answer.

a) Paper slippage

b) Improper ribbon advancement

c) Paper thickness

d) Head position

14. After you service a laser printer, you notice dirty print. Which of the following would correct the problem? Choose the BEST answer.

a) Clean the developer tank

b) Reset the printer

c) Run several blank pages

d) Clean the laser diode

15. Which of the following should be considered when storing laser printer paper? (choose all that apply)

a) Location

b) Temperature

c) Humidity

d) Ream size

16. Windows generates an error message stating it can not open enough files. Which configuration needs to be modified?

a) Autoexec.bat

b) System.ini

c) Config.sys

d) Win.ini

SECTION 11 : WINDOWS 3.1

1. Which files specifies the parameters used by the printer in Windows 3.1?

a) SYSTEM.INI

b) CONFIG.SYS

c) AUTOEXEC.BAT

d) WIN.INI

2. What is a PIF?

a) A program interchange file

b) A file that keeps information about non-Windows applications and lets Windows run them

c) A file that Windows uses to load non-Windows programs to high memory area

d) A performance index function that determines multitasking time share parameters for Windows applications

3. To run Windows, what MUST be loaded?

a) EMM386.EXE

b) SETVER.EXE

c) HIMEM.SYS

d) MOUSE.SYS

4. What is the recommended way to preserve the Windows group items before reinstalling Windows?

a) Save the contents of WIN.INI, SYSTEM.INI and GROUP.INI files

b) Save the WIN368.EXE, WIN.INI, and GRP.INI FILES

c) Save all files with .INI extensions in the Windows directory

d) Save all files with .GRP extensions, as well as WIN.INI and SYSTEM.INI files

5. How much RAM is the minimum required for installing Windows for Workgroups?

a) 2MB

b) 4MB

c) 8MB

d) 16MB

6. Which file contains system hardware settings specifications?

a) WIN.INI

b) SYSTEM.INI

c) FILTER.INI

d) CONTROL.INI

7. Within Windows, an Icon . . .

a) Can exist in any or all program groups any number of times

b) Cannot exist more than once in a program group

c) Can exist only once regardless of which program group it is in

d) Can exist more than once if it doesn’t call up the same program

8. Your computer’s hard drive light blinks continously while you use your word processing program. What does this most likely indicate?

a) There is a need to increase RAM

b) It’s time to replace the bulb

c) The hard drive is approaching failure

d) The word processing software may be corrupted

9. After clicking on your work processing icon, Windows reports the following error message: “invalid working directory”. What should you do first?

a) Click on the icons properties

b) Run fdisk

c) Check the path statement in the autoexec.bat file

d) Check the group properties

10. Which of the following files can be modified using the Windows SYSEDIT program? (Choose all that apply)

a) WIN.INI

b) CONTROL.INI

c) CONFIG.SYS

d) AUTOEXEC.BAT

ANSWERS

The letters below each heading are the correct answers.

Section 1 : INTRO

C 2. D

Section 2 : DOS

Section 3 : SAFETY

Section 4 : COMPONENTS

Section 5 : MISC HARDWARE

Section 6 : TROUBLESHOOTING

Section 7 : HARDWARE INSTALL

Section 8 : DIAGNOSIS

C
C
B
D
A
B
B
C
B
ABCD
A
B
D
B
AB
ABCD
A
A
C

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